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Axe-FX XL+ Upgrade, Improved Audio Quality

unix-guy

Legend!
Yes but that's a comment of a user that judges by hear, Cliff is the one who designed both machines and I think he knows better what he's talking about ;)
Well, I think you may be reading more into what he said, which is "possibly sounding better" not "does sound better".

The "user" in question is one with a long and trusted history on the forum.

I just read the rest of the thread. You might also be interested in this post from Cliff:

https://forum.fractalaudio.com/threads/why-is-there-such-a-difference-between-axe-ii-mk1-and-mk2.97766/page-3#post-1179153
 

DLC86

Power User
Well, I think you may be reading more into what he said, which is "possibly sounding better" not "does sound better".

The "user" in question is one with a long and trusted history on the forum.

I just read the rest of the thread. You might also be interested in this post from Cliff:

https://forum.fractalaudio.com/threads/why-is-there-such-a-difference-between-axe-ii-mk1-and-mk2.97766/page-3#post-1179153
In this post he's talking about XL Vs XL+ though.

Anyway "possibly" means it is possible, several users here are saying it's impossible indeed, and I think that's a bit of an absolutistic assertion.

But let's stop discussing semantic now and hope Cliff will clear it up :)
 

Rex

Legend!
What does decreasing noise mean though, maybe it is noise in the signal that reduces clarity. I dont think it was a setting unless there is a global eq I dont know about.
Decreasing noise means less noise in the audio output. But the noise in even the Mk I is so low that, in most situations, it's inaudible.
 

yek

Moderator
Moderator
In this post he's talking about XL Vs XL+ though.

Anyway "possibly" means it is possible, several users here are saying it's impossible indeed, and I think that's a bit of an absolutistic assertion.

But let's stop discussing semantic now and hope Cliff will clear it up :)
There's no such a noticeable difference as you seem to imply. There really isn't.
 

Bakerman

Axe-Master
Well, listen to my sample if you still haven't
Your sample was a bad example because the gain was different. Even if some hardware difference caused it, you really should have adjusted to match the level hitting the grid/amp. Not whatever you did that gave more gain/volume on the Mark II clip.
 

yek

Moderator
Moderator
BTW, the Axe-Fx II has variable input impedance, while the AX8 has fixed input impedance.
 

Jason Scott

Power User
What does decreasing noise mean though, maybe it is noise in the signal that reduces clarity. I dont think it was a setting unless there is a global eq I dont know about.
The MK II has a pretty low noise floor and you likely won't hear it unless you're using heavy compression.
 

DLC86

Power User
Your sample was a bad example because the gain was different. Even if some hardware difference caused it, you really should have adjusted to match the level hitting the grid/amp. Not whatever you did that gave more gain/volume on the Mark II clip.
I did nothing to give more gain or volume and I think that's evident in the first two clips where both where fed by the same exact signal. I checked every possible global and preset setting so I am pretty sure it was introduced by the hardware.
And by the way, gain IS a difference too.

You're right in that, to prove a difference in frequency response, the gain should be matched, but while playing it was pretty evident to me and it still is since after my last rehearsal I had to adjust quite a bit all my old and tested presets.
For me the case is closed, then everyone is free to believe what he likes and trust his own ears :p

BTW, the Axe-Fx II has variable input impedance, while the AX8 has fixed input impedance.
In fact I set it to 1M in the axe fx to match the ax8
 
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